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AirbusTGS2007airbustgs2007

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    AIRBUS A319/320/321

    Technical Ground School Study Guide

    2007 2008

    Updated : 04/07/07 PHB : 03-07

    Send corrections / comments to Bob Sanford, E-mail: busdriver@hky.com

    TGS PART ONE

    Ice & Rain Protection 1. After takeoff, when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected ON, if needed? Wing anti-ice operation: Select WING ANTI ICE ON after thrust reduction altitude Normally, WING ANTI ICE should be selected OFF at the FAF If in severe icing conditions, WING ANTI ICE may be left ON for landing Wing anti-ice is not permitted on the ground or in flight when the TAT exceeds 10C. 2. What happens to engine RPM when either engine anti-ice valve is open? The N1 limit for that engine is automatically reduced, and if necessary, the idle N1 is automatically increased for both engines in order to provide the required pressure. Additionally, continuous ignition is activated for that engine. 3. When would probe heat automatically come on? On the ground, low power is applied to the heaters when at least one engine is operating. In flight, the heating system automatically changes to high. The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb ON. Note: The TAT probes are not heated on the ground. 4. What would happen if the RAIN RPLNT pushbutton was pushed on the ground with the engines shut down? The RAIN RPLNT pb is inhibited on the ground with the engines stopped. 5. Is electrical heat applied to the galley/lavatory drain masts anytime there is aircraft electrical power on the aircraft? The drain masts are heated any time the electrical system is powered. 6. When are the windshields and side windows heated automatically on the ground? The windshields and side windows are electrically heated for anti-icing and anti-fogging. The system is controlled automatically by the Window Heat Computers which provide regulation, protection, and fault indications. Windshield heat automatically operates at low power on the ground with at least one engine operating. In flight, the windshield heating system changes to normal. The changeover is automatic. Only one heating level exists for the windows. The system can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb ON. 7. In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electric power is lost? Wing: Valves close automatically if electrical power is lost. Engine: If AC electrical power is lost, the valve opens automatically. 8. While using engine anti-ice, is it necessary to select the engine mode selector to IGN? No Continuous ignition is selected when the valve is opened and the ANTI ICE ENG pb is selected ON. 9. When engine anti-ice is selected ON, what else occurs with regard to the engine? _____________________________________________________________

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     When an engine anti ice valve is open, the N1 limit for that engine is automatically reduced and, if necessary, the IDLE N1 is automatically increased for both engines in order to provide the required pressure. 10. If performing an APU BLEED ON TAKEOFF, is it permissible to use APU bleed to provide air for wing anti ice? Limitation: APU air bleed extraction for wing anti-icing is not permitted.

Electrical

     1. What is the normal priority for supplying electric power to the aircraft? 1. Engine generators 2. External power 3. APU generator 4. Emergency generator (RAT) 5. Batteries 2. What does the EXT PWR pb AVAIL light mean? AVAIL light illuminates green if: External power is plugged in, and External power parameters are normal. 3. What does the EMER GEN red FAULT light indicate when illuminated? This light illuminates red if the emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are not powered. 4. If the BAT pushbuttons are in AUTO position overnight without any other power, will the batteries discharge completely? Automatic battery contactors are open when: The aircraft is on the ground. The BAT pbs are in AUTO. The main power supply (EXT PWR + GEN) is cut off. The battery voltage is low. Battery automatic cut-off logic prevents complete discharge of the battery when the aircraft is on the ground and unpowered. 5. When is the main galley power automatically shed? The main galley (A319/320), all galleys (A321), and in-seat power supply are shed automatically when: In flight: only one generator is operating On the ground: only one generator is operating (All galleys are available when the APU GEN or EXT PWR is supplying power) 6. How long must the IDG pushbutton be held to achieve a disconnect? Press IDG pb until the GEN FAULT light comes on but for not more than 3 seconds to avoid damage to the disengage solenoid. 7. What does the GEN 1 LINE pb light indicate when SMOKE is illuminated? Illuminates amber, along with a warning on the ECAM, when smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct.

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8. With loss of AC BUS 1, what would a FAULT light in the AC ESS FEED pb indicate? The AC ESS BUS is not electrically supplied. The AC ESS bus is normally powered by AC BUS 1 through the AC essential feed contactor. The AC ESS FEED pb allows the pilot to transfer the AC ESS bus power source from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2. Note: In case of total loss of main generators, the AC ESS BUS is automatically supplied by the emergency generator or by the static inverter if the emergency generator is not available. 9. Can the batteries be depleted? Battery automatic cut-off logic prevents complete discharge of the battery when the aircraft is on the ground and un-powered. 10. If automatic cutoff has occurred, how can the crew re-establish battery power? The flight crew can reset the contactors by switching the BAT pb to OFF then AUTO. 11. If both main AC buses lose electrical power with airspeed above 100 knots, what will happen? If both AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed is above 100 knots, the RAT automatically deploys and pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically driven emergency generator. A generator control unit controls generator output, which is considerably lower than that of the main generators. Once the emergency generator is up to speed it will supply power to the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS (via the ESS TR) in addition to the AC ESS SHED and DC ESS SHED buses. During RAT deployment and emergency generator coupling (approximately 8 seconds), the batteries supply power to these buses. After landing, the DC BAT bus is automatically connected to the batteries when airspeed drops below 100 knots. When the speed decreases below 50 knots, the AC ESS bus is automatically shed, and power is lost to the CRTs. 12. What will cause the RAT to extend automatically? See question 11. 13. Where are the circuit breakers located and how is their condition monitored? Green C/Bs are monitored by the ECAM system. The ECAM displays “C/B TRIPPED ON OVHD PNL (or REAR PNL)” warning when a monitored circuit breaker is tripped for more than 1 minute. 14. If the Galleys shed due to overload, can the crew recover galley power? No

    Fire Protection 1. If the ENG FIRE pushbutton were released out, would that action affect the electrical system? The ENG FIRE pb: Silences the aural fire warning Arms the fire extinguisher sqibs Closes the LP fuel valve Closes the hydraulic fire valve Closes the engine bleed valve Closes the pack flow control valve Disconnects the FADEC power supply Deactivates the IDG 2. What action arms the engine fire extinguishing squibs? Releasing the ENG FIRE pushbutton (see question 1).

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3. How would the crew know if any component of the fire detection system fails? The ECAM will issue appropriate messages if any component of the detection system fails. 4. If there is an APU fire in flight will the APU automatically shutdown? On the ground, detection of an APU fire causes automatic an APU shutdown and extinguisher discharge. In flight, there is no automatic APU shutdown, and the extinguisher must be manually discharged. 5. What is required for a fire warning to be indicated in an engine or APU? Each engine is equipped with two identical detection loops (A & B) each of which contain three heat sensing elements and a computer (Fire Detection Unit). The sensing elements are located in the pylon nacelle, engine core, and fan section. The FDU issues a fire warning when both loops detect an overheat in a particular area. If one loop fails, the fire warning system remains operational with the other loop. A fire warning is also issued if both loops fail within 5 seconds of each other. An engine fire is indicated by an aural CRC, the illumination of the ENG FIRE pb, and MASTER WARN lights. Each engine is equipped with two fire extinguishers which are discharged by pressing the associated AGENT DISCH pb on the respective engine FIRE panel. 6. Can the APU FIRE test be performed with the APU running? Yes The automatic shutdown of the APU on the ground will not occur while the flight crew is performing this test. 7. What is required for a fire warning to be indicated in an engine or APU? See question 5. 8. What external indications may be received in the event of an APU fire while on the ground? The red APU FIRE light illuminates and an external warning horn sounds The APU fire extinguisher discharges automatically 3 seconds after the appearance of the fire warning. The light extinguishes when the fire has been extinguished. 9. How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the cargo compartments? One extinguisher bottle supplies one nozzle in the forward compartment and two nozzles in the aft compartment. The agent is discharged by pressing either the FWD or AFT DISCH pb. 10. If a cargo smoke detector fails, does that render the system inoperative? Both cargo compartments are equipped with smoke detector loops. The forward compartment contains two smoke detectors in the A319/320 and four smoke detectors in the A321. In the A319/320, the aft compartment contains two loops with two detectors each. In the A321, the aft compartment contains three loops with two smoke detectors in each. A Smoke Detection Control Unit issues a smoke warning when two smoke detectors of one loop detect smoke. If one smoke detector fails, the system remains operational with the other detector. Cargo smoke is indicated by an aural CRC, the illumination of the MASTER WARN and CARGO SMOKE light on the CARGO SMOKE panel. If the cargo smoke warning is activated in either compartment, the associated isolation valves close and the extraction fan stops. 11. In case of lavatory smoke, would you get a warning in the cockpit? Lavatory smoke is indicated by: Aural CRC Illumination of MASTER WARN light Red ECAM SMOKE LAVATORY SMOKE

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Aircraft Fuel

     1. What is the total fuel capacity of the Airbus A320?

     A319/320 A321

    Wing Tanks 27,500 lb 27,500 lb

    Center Tank 14,500 lb 14,500 lb

    ACT - 10,500 lb

    TOTAL 42,000 lb 52,500 lb

     2. Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power. External power, the APU, or battery power can be used for refueling. 3. Can fuel be suction fed to the engines? If the wing tank pumps fail, suction feeding is possible only from the inner wing cells (A319/320), or the wing tank (A321). 4. If the boost pumps in the left fuel tank were OFF, how would the APU obtain fuel? An APU fuel pump is in the left fuel manifold to provide fuel to the APU when the tank pumps are off. 5. How can you know the crossfeed valve is fully open? The X FEED pb OPEN light illuminates green when the valve is fully open. 6. What does a wing tank pump fault light indicate? Amber light illuminates and ECAM caution appears when the delivery pressure drops. 7. When does the fuel crossfeed valve automatically open? Never 8. When and how is fuel normally transferred from the outer to inner wing tanks? The wing tank transfer valves automatically latch open when the wing inner cell fuel quantity drops to 1,650 lbs thus allowing the outer cell fuel to drain into the inner cell. The transfer valves open simultaneously in both wings and remain open until the next refueling operation. During steep descents and acceleration/deceleration, the transfer valves may open prematurely and trigger a LO LVL warning. 9. In an A321, which fuel tank is emptied first? A321: The fuel transfer system controls the flow of fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks, which feed the engines. The tanks empty in the following sequence: 1. ACT transfers fuel into the center tank 2. Center tank transfers fuel into the wing tanks 3. Wing tanks With the MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit (FLSCU) has automatic control of the transfer valve. When the transfer valve is open, fuel from the wing tank pumps flows through the jet pump and creates suction. This suction moves the fuel from the center tank to the related wing tank. The FLSCU automatically closes the associated center tank transfer valve when the wing tank is full. The transfer valve reopens the center tank transfer valve when the engines have used 550 lbs of wing tank fuel. With the ACT pb in AUTO, automatic control of the transfer occurs after takeoff at slats retraction. It is initiated if the center tank high level sensor has been dry for 10 minutes and fuel remains in either ACT. Fuel transfer from the ACTs to the center tank is made by pressurizing the ACT, closing the ACT vent valves, and opening the air shut-off and inlet valves. ACT2 transfers first. With the MODE SEL in MAN, the center tank transfer valves open. Wing tank overflow must be prevented by selecting the CTR TK XFR pbs OFF when the wing tanks are full. They must also be selected OFF when the center tank is empty.

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During transfer, if the center tank high level sensor gets wet, transfer from the ACT stops. The transfer valve opens when the center tank high sensor is dry for ten minutes. A319/320: Normal fuel feed sequencing is automatic. When there is fuel in all tanks, the center tank feeds the engines first (even though the wing tank pumps operate continuously). With the fuel MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the center tank pumps operated for two minutes after both engines are started to confirm center tank pump operation prior to takeoff. After takeoff, the center tank pumps restart when the slats are retracted and continue to operate for five minutes after the center tank is empty or until the slats are extended. With the MODE SEL pb in MAN, the center tank pumps operate continuously. The crew must select the CTR TK PUMP pbs OFF when the center tank is empty. 10. Normally, can fuel be transferred between center and wings during flight on the A319/320? Except during normal fueling operations, fuel cannot be transferred from one tank to another.

Pneumatics, Air Conditioning, & Pressurization 1. What would an amber temperature indication in either the Pack Outlet Temperature or Pack Compressor Outlet Temperature indicate? The temperature changes from green to amber if the temperature exceeds the advisory threshold. 2. With the LDG ELEV selector at 2, what would be the landing elevation? 2,000 feet 3. What is indicated if the Cabin Vertical Speed is indicated in amber? The cabin vertical speed is in the advisory range. 4. With the LDG ELEV selector in AUTO, what altitude is used for landing field pressurization reference? FMGS data is used. 5. The pack flow control valve automatically closes for engine start when the mode selector is moved to IGN/START. When does the valve automatically reopen? Reopening of the valves is delayed for 30 seconds to avoid a supplementary pack closure during second engine start. 6. The APU BLEED pb FAULT light illuminates amber when? This amber light illuminates and an ECAM caution appears when the system detects an APU bleed leak. 7. Can external air be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure? No 8. When operating pressurization in AUTO, if the pilot suspects the selected controller is malfunctioning, how can he swap controllers? Attempt to select the other system by switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN for at least 10 seconds, then return it to AUTO. 9. If one cabin pressure controller fails, how is pressurization maintained? In the automatic mode, one cabin pressure controller is active and the other serves as a backup. If the active controller fails, the backup automatically resumes control.

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10. Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment? No, although a portion of the avionics cooling air is exhausted through the cargo underfloor. 11. When would we use the ON position of the ECON FLOW selector (A321)? PACK FLOW Selector (A319/320) LO: if number of pax is less than 90 or for long haul flights. HI: for abnormally hot and humid conditions. NORM: for all other operating cases. ECON FLOW Selector (A321) ON: ECON FLOW if number of pax is less than 140. OFF: for normal flow 12. Is the LDG ELEV knob used when operating manual pressurization? I can’t find the official answer to this one. 13. What indications on the ventilation panel are given if smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct? FAULT illuminates amber in both BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs. 14. Will the DITCHING push-button always close the outflow valves? The outflow valve will not close automatically if it is under manual control.

    Instruments/Navigation/Communication 1. When would the GPWS FLAP MODE pushbutton be selected? Flap mode is inhibited to avoid nuisance warning when landing with a reduced flap setting. 2. What can be expected if the CALLS EMER pushbutton is pressed? Pink light flashes at all area call panels. EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels. High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds through all loudspeakers. 3. Is the radar display available in all modes of the ND selector on the EFIS Control Panel? Any ND mode except PLAN. 4. Does the EGPWS use radar signals to "ground map" terrain? The enhanced function is based on a worldwide terrain database. It provides Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) which predicts terrain conflict and displays the terrain on the ND, and Terrain Clearance Floor which triggers a warning. The TAD function computes a caution and warning envelope ahead of the aircraft and when the boundaries of this envelope conflict with the database terrain information, it generates alerts. 5. When the TO CONFIG pushbutton is depressed, a take-off power application is simulated. What are some of the systems are being checked by this test? If the airplane is not properly configured for takeoff, the following warnings and cautions are triggered when the TO CONFIG pb is pressed or when takeoff power is applied: SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN T.O. RANGE PITCH TRIM NOT IN T.O. RANGE SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED SIDESTICK FAULT HOT BRAKES DOORS NOT CLOSED (tested only if engines are operating)

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6. What does STS indicate when displayed on the EWD? The boxed message STS is displayed in white on the lower part of the E/WD, during non-normal operations, to remind the crew that airplane systems are degraded. The STS message flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other applicable messages. 7. When the Mode Selectors are positioned to NAV and the IRS not previously aligned what indications should be noted on the GNADIRS panel? ON BAT Light … Extinguished IR FAULT Lights … Extinguished IR ALIGN Lights … Illuminated or flashing ADR pb Lights … Extinguished 8. What does the ON BATT light indicate? Light illuminates amber when one or more IR(s) is supplied only by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates for a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment, but not for a fast realignment. If, when the aircraft is on the ground, at least one ADIRU is supplied by aircraft batteries: An external horn sounds The ADIRU and AVNCS light illuminates blue on the EXTERNAL POWER panel. 9. If continuous spurious caution messages are received that are known to be incorrect, is there any way to cancel this caution? Press the EMER CANC pb on the ECAM control panel. 10. After pressing the EMER CANC pushbutton, how can the system be returned to normal? Press the RCL pb on the ECAM control panel. This pb is used to call up the warning messages, caution messages, and the status page, that may have been suppressed by the activation of the CLR pb or by flight-phase related inhibition. If the RCL pb is held down for more than 3 seconds, the E/WD shows any caution messages that have been suppressed by the EMER CANC pb. 11. If the upper ECAM screen fails, will the crew still be able to see E/WD data? E/WD has priority over the SD. If the upper ECAM screen fails (or is selected off), E/WD data is automatically transferred to the lower screen. 12. If all systems were working normally, and a crewmember wanted to remotely tune a VOR through the RMP, would that have any effect on the FMGC NAV functions? The RMP NAV key engages the radio navigation backup mode. It takes control of the VOR, ILS, (MLS, and ADF not installed) receivers away from the FMGC and gives it to the RMP. 13. If RADIO ALTIMETER #1 fails, would radio altitude information display be lost on any PFD? RA1 height is normally displayed on the captain’s PFD, and RA2 height is normally displayed on the first officer’s PFD. If one radio altimeter fails, the remaining radio altimeter is displayed on both PFDs. 14. What does the amber "=" sign mean on the airspeed tape? This symbol shows the V corresponding to the next flap lever position. FE 15. Which RMP is functional in the emergency electrical configuration? Only RMP 1 is operational in EMER ELEC CONFIG.

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16. Can the EMER CANC pb cancel any aural warning? Warnings: Cancels (stops) an aural warning for as long as the failure condition continues. Extinguishes the MASTER WARN lights. Does not affect the ECAM message display. Cautions Cancel any present caution (single chime, MASTER CAUT lights, and ECAM message) for the rest of the flight. Automatically calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the title of the failure that is inhibited. The EMER CANC pb should only be used in flight to suppress spurious MASTER CAUTIONS. 17. If the #1 IR mode selector was selected to OFF, would that effect the #1 ADR? OFF: The ADIRU is not energized. ADR and IR data is not available. NAV: Normal mode of operation. Supplies full inertial data to aircraft systems. ATT: IR mode supplying only attitude and heading information if the system loses the ability to navigate. 18. If the TERR ON ND pushbutton is selected ON, will this inhibit the weather radar display? When TERR ON ND pb is selected ON, the weather radar image is not displayed although the weather radar is ON.

    Powerplant

     1. If the #1 ENG MAN START pushbutton is depressed, will the engine begin to motor? The start valve opens if the ENG MODE selector is set to CRANK or IGN/START and N < 20%. 2 When the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON, the FADEC controls the start sequence, including both fuel valves, ignition, and closing of the start valve. 2. During a manual start of the #1 engine, does the ENG MAN START pushbutton have to be depressed to close the start valve? When the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON, the FADEC controls the start sequence, including both fuel valves, ignition, and closing of the start valve. 3. During a manual start, are the automatic start interruption and auto-crank functions available? The FADEC provides full monitoring during manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures for the crew to follow in the event of a start fault; however, automatic start interruption (except if on the ground and the start EGT limit is exceeded before reaching 50% N) and auto-crank are not available. 2 4. What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch? 13 quarts 5. How is autothrust disconnected to avoid thrust surges? Autothrust instinctive disconnect pb. 6. With the ENGINE MODE switch in NORM, will ignition be provided if an engine flameout is detected in flight? Yes 7. How is the FADEC powered? The system has its own alternator rendering it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value. If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches over to aircraft electrical power.

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8. If a thrust lever is set between a detent, what rating limit will the FADEC select? If the thrust lever is set between two detents, the FADEC selects the rating limit corresponding to the higher limit. This limit is displayed on the upper ECAM. 9. Continuous ignition is provided automatically when: ENG ANTI ICE is selected ON Engine flameout is detected in flight The EIU fails 10. What is an indication that the start sequence is complete? At ISA sea level (2-4-6-6): N1 approximately 19.5% EGT approximately 390?C N2 approximately 58.5% FF approximately 600 lb/hr Gray background on N indication disappears. 2 11. Operationally, which engine do we start first? Why? Engine 1 is started first under the assumption it will be a single engine taxi. This will ensure engine driven Green hydraulic pump pressure will be available for normal brakes and nosewheel steering.

APU

     1. What is the maximum operating altitude of the APU? 39,000 feet 2. What are the altitude limits for APU generator and bleed air? APU generator 100% load up to 25,000 feet (Note: APU GEN is available up to 39,000 feet). APU Bleed Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is 20,000 feet. 3. When an APU auto shut down has occurred, what other indications are received in addition to the ECAM procedure? APU MASTER SW pb amber FAULT light will illuminate. 4. If external power is powering the aircraft during APU start, when the green AVAIL light illuminates on the APU START pushbutton, what is the source of ships electrical power? EXT PWR 5. What are some of the causes for an APU automatic shutdown?

     Fire (on ground only) Reverse flow Air inlet flap not open Low oil pressure Overspeed High oil temperature No acceleration ECB failure Slow start Loss off overspeed protection EGT overtemperature Underspeed No flame DC power loss

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