Set A - National Certification Examination for Energy Managers and

By Judy Harris,2014-11-16 18:00
12 views 0
Set A - National Certification Examination for Energy Managers andA,For,And,FOR,AND,for,and,Set A,set

    Paper 1 Set A Key Regn No: _________________

    Name: ___________________

    (To be written by the candidate)




PAPER 1: General Aspects of Energy Management and Energy Audit

    Date: 05.02.2011 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:

    o Please check that this question paper contains 15 printed pages o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions

    o The question paper is divided into three sections o All questions in all three sections are compulsory

    o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

    Section I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions.

    (ii) Each question carries one mark.

    (iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB

    pencil, as per instructions.

1. The Government of India levies Clean Energy Cess on which of the following

    a) electricity b) coal c) Diesel d) biodiesel

    2. An electric heater consumes 1000 Joules of energy in 5 seconds. Its power rating is:

    a) 200 W b) 1000 W c) 5000W d) none of the above

    3. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of

    4000 kCal/kg is

    a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125

    4. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given subs tance by 1 deg. C

    is known as:

    a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat

    5. Which of the following parameters is not considered for external Bench Marking?

    a) scale of operation b) energy pricing

    c) raw materials and product quality d) vintage of technology


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key 6. A sling psychrometer is used to measure :

    a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature

    c) both a & b d) relative humidity

    7. A solution of common salt in water is prepared by adding 20 kg of salt to 80 kg of water.

    The concentration of salt as w/w fraction is:

    a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.8 d) 0.6

    8. The number of moles of water contained in 36 kg of water is ------------

    a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

    9. A process electric heater is taking an hour to reach the desired temperature while

    operating at 440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature if the supply

    voltage is reduced to 220 V.

    a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

    10. The proposed ISO standard for Energy M anagement System is:

    a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 14000 d) ISO 14001

    11. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the project manager must consider:

    a) Initial capital cost b) Net operating cash inflows

    c) salvage value d) all the above

    12. Which of the following is not true of natural gas ?

    a) it is denser than air b) contains mainly methane c) can be transported

    through pipelines d) compressed natural gas can be used in IC engines 13. Which of the following is not a part of the definition of energy audit as per the Energy

    Conservation Act 2001?

    a) verification of energy use b) implementation of energy saving measures

    c) submission of technical report d) monitoring of energy use

    14. Availability Based Tariff (ABT) is applicable to pricing of :

    a) oil b) coal c) natural gas d) electricity

    15. Which among the following is not a typical perf ormance contract?

    a) fixed fee b) liquidation for damage c) shared savings d) guaranteed savings 16. An activity in a project has an optimistic time of 10 days, a most likely time of 15 days and

    a pessimistic time of 20 days. Its expected time of completion is-------

    a) 10 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) 35 days.

    17. Network diagrams show logic clearly but does not have -------- like Gantt chart.

    a) nodes b) arrows c) time scale d) events

    18. A chart in Scatter Diagram shows a low degree of scatter. It is indicative of ------

    a) good fit b) poor fit c) skewed fit d) normal fit

    19. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month: Production - 1200

    pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece; variable energy consumption - 950

    kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of the plant for the month is -------


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key

    a) 6,000 kWh b)10,000 kWh c) 12,000 kWh d) 60,000 kWh

    20. A single CFC molecule can destroy about ------------ ozone molecules.

    a) 10,000 b) 100,000 c) 1 million d) 10 million

    21. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time?

    a) CO b) CFC c) Sulfur Hexafluride (SF) d) perfluorocarbon (PFC) 26

    22. Which of the following is not a commercial form of energy2


    a) Oil b) Lignite c) Electricity d) Solar energy

    23. Which of the following is the least predominant loss in oil fired boiler? 2


    a) dry flue gas losses b) heat loss due to moisture in air

    c) heat loss due to hydrogen in fuel d) none of the above

    24. The component of electric power2 which yields useful mechanical power output is known as


    a) apparent power b) active power

    c) reactive power d) none of the above

    25. Identify the wrong statement 2


    a) fuel switching may improve energy efficiency

    b) fuel switching may reduce energy efficiency

    c) fuel switching may reduce energy costs

    d) fuel switching always reduces energy consumption

    26. If a feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 9% concentration is fed to a2n evaporator, the product

    obtained at 36% concentration is equal to ____ tonnes per hour.8

    a) 27 b) 25 c) 36 d) 45

    27. The annual energy consumption of a plant was 22.00 Lakh GJ in the reference year

    2008/2009. In the next year 2009/2010, it was 2.20 Lakh GJ. Th9 e plant energy

    performance (PEP), assuming no change in product mix and output quantity is ____

    a) 10% b) - 10% c) 9.1% d) none of the above

    28. In force field analysis of energy action planning, one of the actions below does not fall 3

    under positive force? 0

    a) high price of energy b) availability of energy efficient technology

    c) commitment of top management d) lack of awareness

    29. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted to fire coconut shell3 chips. Boiler thermal efficiency drops

    from 82% to 70%. What will be the 1 percentage change in energy consumption to

    generate the same output

    a) 12% increase b) 14.6% increase

    c) 17.1% decrease d) 17.1% increase

    30. Doppler effect principle is used in which of the following instrument3


    a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter

    c) infrared thermometer d) flue gas analyzer

    31. ROI must always be ________ 3borrowing interest rate for economic feasibility of any

    project 4


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key

    a) lower than b) higher than

    c) equal to d) no relation

    32. The reagent used to absorb CO3 in a fyrite is 2 5 a) chromous chloride b) potassium hydroxide

    c) potassium permanganate d) pyrogallol

    33. The Critical Path in PERT indicates _____. 3


    a) minimum time required for the completion of the project

    b) delays in the project

    c) maximum time required for the completion of the project

    d) none of the above

    34. The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 3requires that all the notified designated consumers to

    get mandatory energy audits conducted by7

    a) a certified energy manager b) an accredited energy auditor

    c) a certified energy auditor d) a state designated agency 35. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power 3

    factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft 8

    power output of the motor is

    a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW

     c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above

    36. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Man3ager is

    mandatory for all 9

    a) industrial units b) commercial buildings

    c) notified designated consumers d) electrical distribution licensees 37. Which among the following raw materials is used for bio4-diesel production


    a) leaves b) coal c) light Diesel oil (LDO) d) jatropha seeds 38. Input to Fuel Cell is 4


    a) bio-gas b) hydrogen c) oil gas mix d) oxygen

    39. Wind speed for commercial exploitation for electricity production has to be :4


    a) Up to 15 km/hr b) 15- 18 km/hr c) 25-30 km/hr d) no limit , whatsoever 40. Which of the following is not a national mission u4nder the Prime Minister‘s National Action

    Plan on Climate Change 5

    a) national solar mission b) national mission for enhanced energy efficiency

    c) national mission on CFC alternatives d) national mission for green India 41. Which among the following renewable energy routes accounts for the maximum4

    contribution to power generation7 in India

    a) wind b) geothermal c) solar thermal d) solar PV 42. Producer gas is basically : 4


    a) Only CHb) CO and CH c) CO, H and CH d) only CO and H 4 424 243. Which of the following is a renewable energy source?4


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key


    a) bitumen b) wood c) nuclear fuels d) lignite

    44. What is the load factor of a continuously operating facility that cons umed 400,000 kWh of

    energy during a 30-day billing period and established a peak demand of 1000 kW?

    a) 0.55 b) 0.40 c) 0.65 d) 0.50

    45. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of sulfur hexafluoride is

    a) 1 b) 23 c) 300 d) 22,000

    46. The amount of solar energy that strikes a square meter of the earth‘s surface in a single

    day is called

    a) solar window b) solar constant c) solar insolation d) solar radiation 47. The energy conversion efficiency of a solar cell does not depend on

    a) solar energy insolation b) inverter c) area of the solar cell d) maximum power


    48. The exhaust from a fuel cell would contain

    a) Hydrogen b) Water vapour c) CO d) Oxygen 2

    49. The management tool that focuses on optim izing the effectiveness of manufacturing

    equipment is

    a) 5S b) TQM c) TPM d) Kaizen

    50. The following industry/establishment is not covered in the notified list of nine designated

    consumers under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001

    a) chlor alkali b) fertilizer c) paper and pulp d) hydel power station

    ……. End of Section – I …….


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key




PAPER 1: General Aspects of Energy Management and Energy Audit

Date: 05.02.2011 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:

    o All questions are compulsory

    o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

    Section II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

     (i) Answer all Eight questions

     (ii) Each question carries Five marks

    S-1 Give a short description about primary and secondary energy with example.


    Primary energy refers to all types of energy extracted or captured directly from

    natural resources.

    Primary energy is further divided into two distinctive groups:

    i) Renewable (solar energy, wind energy, geothermal, tidal, biomass)

    ii) Non-renewable (coal, oil, natural gas and uranium)

    Primary energy is transformed in energy conversion process to more convenient

    forms of energy such as electricity, steam etc. These forms of energy are called

    secondary energy.

    S-2 Explain what is meant by Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO).


    Electricity Act 2003 has made a significant regulatory impact on the use of

    renewable energy by RPO.

     By this, each retail seller of electricity is obligated to include in their resource

    portfolio a certain proportion of power from renewable energy sources, such as

    wind, solar, small hydro, bio mass etc. The retailer can meet this obligation either

    by owning a renewable energy facility or purchasing renewable energy from

    someone‘s facility.


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key

    S-3 An Energy Manager in a factory has gathered following data to arrive at the Plant

    Energy Performance.

     Reference Year (2009) energy use : 12 million kCal

     Production Factor (PF) for the current year (2010) : 0.9

     Current year‘s energy : 11 million kCal

     What is the Plant energy Performance (PEP) of the factory for the year 2010?

    State your inference.


     Reference year equivalent energy = Reference year energy use * P.F

     = 12 * 0.9 = 10.8 MkCal

     Plant Energy Performance = (Reference year equivalent current year‘s



     Reference Year equivalent

     = (10.8 11) / 10.8

     = - 1.85 %

    Inference: Plant energy performance is marginally negative. Energy

    manager/plant manger has to take action to improve the performance.

    S-4 An energy saving proposal involves an investment of Rs. 25 lakhs in an industry

    and is expected to yield an average annual net saving of Rs. 5 lakhs/annum. The

    cost of borrowing of the investment is 14%. Compute the return on investment for

    this proposal and state with reason whether the investment is justified

     Also, state the limitations of ROI.


     The Return On Investment (ROI) = 5/25 *100 = 20%

     The cost of borrowing = 14%

     Since ROI is higher than interest rate, the proposal is justified.

     Limitations of ROI:

    1) ROI does not take into account for the time value of the money over the period

    of cash flow.


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key

     2) It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash flows. The 20%

    return indicated would be economically valid only if the return is occurring in

    perpetuity .

    S-5 Estimate the expected power output for the following 150 kW rated wind turbine:

     Wind turbine blade diameter : 20 m

     Average wind speed : 15 m/s

     Generator efficiency : 95%

     Gear box efficiency : 90%

     3 Assume: air density : 1.2 kg/m

     Coefficient of performance of the blade : 0.3


     Expected power output (P) = ? * density * A* Cp* Egr * Egb * V^3 Watts

     23 P = 0.5 *1.2 * 3.14/4 * 20 *0.3*0.95*0.90 * 15

     = 163095 Watts

     = 163 kW.

    S-6 What is the need for standards and labeling programme for energy consuming

    equipment and appliances? Write a short note on star rating programme of BEE

    for energy consuming equipment and appliances


    There is a wide variation in energy consumption of similar products by various

    manufacturers. Also information on energy consumption is often not easily

    available. This leads to continued manufacture and purchase of inefficient

    equipment and appliances. Hence the need for standards and labeling.

    Star Ratings: Star rating is a system initiated by BEE to determine energy

    efficiency of an appliance like air conditioner. Depending upon their energy

    efficiency, they are rated on a scale of 1-5 stars. Star ratings starts from one star

    (which is the least energy efficient and hence the least money saved) to 5 stars

    (which is the most energy efficient). Star ratings are affixed on appliances after

    testing in BEE accredited laboratories. A manufacturer has to register with BEE

    to get the star ratings, and get their products tested in laboratories. Label

    indicates the energy efficiency levels through the number of stars highlighted in

    colour on the label. It is being applied to many products such as refrigerators,

    TVs, ACs and so on.


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key

    S-7 List five measures for achieving energy security of a country


    Some of the strategies that can be used to meet future energy requirements include: o Reducing energy requirements

    - Improving the efficiency of extraction of fossil fuels

    - Improving fuel efficiency of new coal-fired power plants by adopting new

    technology (i.e. super critical pulverized fuel fired boilers)

    - Adopting energy efficiency and demand side management

    - Promotion of public transport / mass transport (e.g. metro rail, light rail,

    monorail etc.) in urban areas

    - Developing renewable energy sources especially solar and wind

o Substituting imported oil/gas with domestic alternatives

    - Ethanol / Biodiesel as substitute for petrol / diesel

    - Biomass gasification for heat or power as alternative to gas / coal

    - Coal-to-oil technology as done in South Africa

o Diversifying energy supply sources

    - Mix of fuel comprising of coal, gas, nuclear, hydro and renewables with no

    dependence on any particular fuel

    - Sourcing oil / LNG from different countries

    - Importing gas through pipelines passing through countries who also benefit

    o Expanding energy resource and developing alternative energy sources

    - Improved Oil Recovery (IOR) and Enhanced Oil Recovery (EOR) for

    improving exploitation of reserves

    - Recovery of oil and gas from abandoned or marginal fields

    - In-situ coal gasification

    - Capturing Coal Bed Methane (CBM) which escapes from coal seams during


    - Conversion of coal to oil

    - Gas to Liquid (GTL)

    - Stepping up exploration to find new reserves (only one-third of oil bearing

    area explored so far)

    - Equity oil, gas, coal from other countries

    - Setting up energy intensive units (i.e. fertilizer plants) abroad

    - New domestic sources (nuclear fast breeder reactor, thorium reactors, gas

    hydrates etc.)

    - Promoting Community Biogas Plants

    - Energy plantations

    S-8 What are the qualifications required for an accredited energy auditor under the

    Bureau of Energy Efficiency Regulations (Qualifications for Accredited Energy

    Auditors and Maintenance of their list), Regulations 2010 notified under EC Act,




    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Paper 1 Set A Key

     An Energy auditor shall be qualified to become an accredited energy auditor if he

    / she-

    (a) is a certified energy manager and has passed the examination in ―Energy

    Performance for Equipment and Utility Systems‖ conducted by Bureau

    (b) has an experience of five years in energy audit out of which atleast three

    years shall be in any of energy intensive industries

    (c) has been granted a certificate of accreditation by the Bureau of Energy


    Accreditation Advisory Committee constituted by BEE for the purpose of grant of

    certificate of accreditation shall assess the energy audit experience and

    competence of energy auditor who has applied for certification of accreditation on

    the basis of an oral interview.

    ……. End of Section – II …….

    Section III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

     (i) Answer all Six questions

     (ii) Each question carries Ten marks

    L-1 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently

    operating at an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying,

    the Energy Manager measures the dryness of the paper both at inlet and outlet

    of the paper drying machine, and are found to be 60% and 95% respectively.

     2 The steam is supplied at 3.5 kg/cm , having a latent heat of 513 kCal/kg. The 0evaporated moisture temperature is around 100 C having enthalpy of 640


    i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated/hr.

    ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation per hour.


    i) Estimation of moisture quantity to be evaporated/hr:

    Production rate = 480/24 = 20 TPH

    Inlet dryness to the paper machine : 60%

    Outlet dryness from the machine : 95%

    Paper weight in the final product = 20* 0.95 = 19 TPH

    Weight of moisture after dryer = 1 TPH

    Weight of moisture before dryer


    Bureau of Energy Efficiency

Report this document

For any questions or suggestions please email