Swedish Relaxation Massage
1. A list of guiding principles by which members of an organization conduct their day-to-day
responsibilities within their scope of practice is called a. Code of ethics
b. Rules and regulations
c. Standards of practice
d. Therapist’s rights and responsibilities
2. Nondisclosure of privileged information is the definition of a. Confidentiality
b. Release form
d. Privacy act
3. To prevent cross-contamination, which type of lubricant dispenser is best?
a. Single-use container
b. Multiuse container
c. Pump dispenser
d. Both a and c
4. When adjusting table height, the therapist must take into account
a. Size of the room
b. Client girth
c. Client height
d. Height of the ceiling
5. A biological agent capable of causing disease is a. Flagellum
6. The best thing a massage therapist can do to prevent the spread of infection is
b. Vitamin supplements
7. A condition in which massage is inappropriate, is not advised, and may be harmful to the client is
a. Absolute contraindication
b. Restricted condition
c. Local contraindication
d. Confined contraindication
8. A physiological response that occurs as a result of pressure, force, or range of motion is a
a. Mechanical response
b. Pressure response
c. Reflexive response
d. Biophysiological response
9. The practice of foot stances, body postures, and leverage techniques to enhance treatment effectiveness
and reduce the risk of injury is known as
b. Body mechanics
10. Recumbent position preferred for pregnancy, for some elderly people, in cases of recent surgeries, as
well as for various other conditions is called
a. Side-lying position
b. Accommodating supine
c. Adaptive prone
d. Homolateral recumbent
11. Active movements performed by the client while the therapist assists throughout the range of motion
or stretch are called
a. Active assisted movements
b. Active resisted movements
c. Passive movements
d. Active movements
12. The repetition or regularity of massage movements is a definition of a. Rhythm
13. What is an assessment done through touching with purpose and intent? a. Crepitus
14. Information learned from the client or the client’s family and friends that includes most written
information obtained on the intake form and information gathered during conversation is called
d. Peer review
15. Which of the following statements is true regarding precautions when massaging a pregnant client?
a. Avoid pétrissage on her right calf.
b. Apply only hacking tapotement on her abdomen in the second trimester.
c. Tilt her body to the left by placing a pillow or cushion under her right flank when
d. Place a cushion under her abdomen while she is prone.
16. What position should be avoided or limited during pregnancy massage? a. Side-lying
b. Supine with left tilted hip
17. What should an infant massage instructor use to demonstrate positioning, massage strokes, and
interpersonal dynamics such as talking?
a. The caregiver’s baby
b. A doll
c. His or her own baby
d. A video of a session
18. Feeling pain and other sensations in all or part of an amputated limb is known as a. Chronic
b. Amputation sensation
c. Phantom limb pain
19. A coping mechanism in which the client “leaves her body” or believes that her own past abuse
experience has happened to someone else is
a. State dependent memory
c. Emotional release
20. What is a relatively stable condition of the body’s internal environment within a very limited range?
21. Which is lateral to the other, the ilium or the umbilicus?
22. Which is anterior to the other, the heart or the vertebral column?
23. If you were to assume the anatomical position, you would do which of the following?
a. Lie face down with both feet hip distance apart, toes pointing downward.
b. Lie flat on your back with the palms of your hands flat on the floor and your head
looking over your right shoulder.
c. Stand erect and face forward, with your palms facing forward with the thumbs to
the side, and your feet about hip distance apart with the toes pointing forward.
d. Stand erect and face forward, with your palms facing each other and feet about hip
distance apart with the toes pointing to the side.
24. What is a group of similar cells that act together to perform a specific function?
25. Which of the following cells gives color to the skin and serves to decrease the amount of ultraviolet
light that can penetrate into the deeper layers of the skin? a. Keratinocytes
26. What constitutes about 70% of the dermis; offers supports to the nerves, blood vessels, hair follicles,
and glands; and is the main component of connective tissue? a. Keratin
27. Which skin glands secrete sweat, or perspiration? a. Sebaceous glands
b. Pilo glands
c. Sudoriferous glands
d. Endocrine glands
28. Which skin region is relatively avascular?
29. Which of the following is a genetic condition in which the individual cannot produce melanin?
30. Cells that break down bone tissue to maintain homeostasis of calcium and phosphates and to repair
bone are called
31. What is the viscous fluid found in synovial joints, sheaths, and bursae?
c. Articulatory fluid
d. Synovial fluid
32. Minute vascular canals running longitudinally down the bone are the
a. Volkman’s canals
b. Periosteal cavities
c. Medullary cavities
d. Haversian canals
33. Lateral or outward rotation of the forearm is called a. Supination
34. Synovial joints in which movements are limited to flexion and extension (examples are the elbow and
interphalangeal joints) are called
a. Pivot joints
b. Hinge joints
c. Saddle joints
d. Ellipsoidal joints
35. Which classification of bones possesses a broad flat surface for muscle attachment or protection of
36. Lesson One: On which of the following are the greater and lesser tubercles located?
37. Lesson Four: Which vertebra contains the odontoid process? a. C1
38. What phrase is used to describe an individual muscle fiber that, sufficiently stimulated, will contract
to its fullest extent or not at all?
a. All or none response
b. Motor unit activation
d. Troponin/tropomyosin response
39. Which term is used to describe an isotonic contraction that results in lengthening of the muscle?
a. Stretch contraction
b. Eccentric contraction
c. Concentric contraction
d. Isometric contraction
40. Which represents a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers to which it attaches?
a. Muscle spindles
b. Motor end plate
c. Motor unit
41. Which of the following are fatigue-resistant muscle fibers referred to as red muscle?
a. Fast twitch
c. Moderate twitch
d. Slow twitch
42. Which of the following are groups of muscle fibers? a. Myofibril
43. What is the principal neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction?
44. What are muscles called that cross two joints and act on both joints?
45. What are the bandage-like retaining bands of connective tissue found primarily around the elbows,
knees, ankles, and wrists?
46. Which of the following is a division of the autonomic nervous system and is most active under calm
a. Homeostatic nervous system
b. Beta nervous system
c. Parasympathetic nervous system
d. Sympathetic nervous system
47. What is the term used to describe the inside of the neural membrane bearing a negative charge and
the outside of the neural membrane bearing a positive charge? a. Polarized
48. Which is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve? a. Epineurium
49. Which is the study of the nervous system?
50. What is the name of the clear fluid that circulates around the brain and spinal cord?
a. Cerebrospinal fluid
b. Blood-brain fluid
c. Neurotransmitter fluid
d. Neurocranial secretions
51. Which of the following is NOT a structure located in the brainstem? a. Pons
b. Medulla oblongata
d. Pineal gland
52. What exits the skull through the foramen magnum and extends to about the L2 region?
b. Spinous process
c. Spinal cord
53. Which of the following is(are) the chemical messenger(s) of the endocrine system?
54. Which of the following mechanisms regulates the amount of hormones secreted by an endocrine
gland by stimulating the opposite response? a. Positive feedback system
b. Negative feedback system
c. Hormonal control system
d. Neural control system
55. What is a synonym for the hormone epinephrine? a. Adrenaline
56. Which gland(s) secrete(s) the hormones triiodothyronine and thyroxine, or T3 and T4?
d. Adrenal medulla
57. Which gland secretes antidiuretic hormone, or ADH? a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Adrenal cortex
d. Adrenal medulla
58. Which hormone stimulates osteoblast activity? a. Parathyroid hormone
b. Thymosin and thymopoietin
c. Triiodothyronine and thyroxine
59. What is the straw-colored liquid that helps transport blood cells?
c. Cardiovascular fluid
d. Circulatory solvent
60. What are the genetically determined proteins on the surfaces of red blood cells?
61. Which of the following are the superior hollow heart chambers? a. Atria
62. What is the open space within the blood vessel called? a. Ventricles
63. Which is a protective mechanism that stabilizes and prepares damaged tissue for repair, with
symptoms that include local heat, swelling, redness, pain, and decreased function?
64. Which of the following is referred to as the guardian of the airways? a. Trachea
65. What are the two phases of breathing?
a. Pulmonary and tissue respiration
b. Diffusion and osmosis
c. Internal and tissue respiration
d. Inspiration and expiration
66. Which of the following is the main muscle of respiration? a. Intercostals
c. Respiratory diaphragm
67. The four paranasal sinuses are the frontal, sphenoidal, ethmoidal, and what else?
68. Which of the following is the process by which products of digestion move into the bloodstream or
lymph vessels, then into the body’s cells?
69. Which of the following best describes a muscular ring used to regulate movement of materials from
one compartment of the gastrointestinal tract to another? a. Orbicularis gius
70. What is the body’s most complex internal organ, carrying out more than 500 functions?
71. What is the muscular passageway leading from the mouth to the anus?
a. Peristaltic tube
b. Alimentary canal
c. Tube of Oddi
d. Feeding canal
72. What are the anatomical structures of the urinary system?
a. Renal cavity, esophagus, large intestine, and small intestine
b. Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra
c. Kidney, colon, liver, and spleen
d. Urinary bladder, esophagus, urethra, and ligaments
73. What are the filtering units of the kidney? a. Kupper cells
d. Juxtaglomerular cells
74. Which of the following leaves the kidney at the renal pelvis and goes to the urinary bladder?
d. Juxtaglomerular apparatus