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albertamassagetraining2011weeblycom

    FINAL EXAM

     Swedish Relaxation Massage

1. A list of guiding principles by which members of an organization conduct their day-to-day

    responsibilities within their scope of practice is called a. Code of ethics

    b. Rules and regulations

    c. Standards of practice

    d. Therapist’s rights and responsibilities

    2. Nondisclosure of privileged information is the definition of a. Confidentiality

    b. Release form

    c. Self-disclosure

    d. Privacy act

3. To prevent cross-contamination, which type of lubricant dispenser is best?

    a. Single-use container

    b. Multiuse container

    c. Pump dispenser

    d. Both a and c

4. When adjusting table height, the therapist must take into account

    a. Size of the room

    b. Client girth

    c. Client height

    d. Height of the ceiling

    5. A biological agent capable of causing disease is a. Flagellum

    b. Carcinogen

    c. Pathogen

    d. Ameba

6. The best thing a massage therapist can do to prevent the spread of infection is

    a. Inoculations

    b. Vitamin supplements

    c. Chelation

    d. Handwashing

7. A condition in which massage is inappropriate, is not advised, and may be harmful to the client is

    called a(n)

    a. Absolute contraindication

    b. Restricted condition

    c. Local contraindication

    d. Confined contraindication

8. A physiological response that occurs as a result of pressure, force, or range of motion is a

    a. Mechanical response

    b. Pressure response

    c. Reflexive response

    d. Biophysiological response

9. The practice of foot stances, body postures, and leverage techniques to enhance treatment effectiveness

    and reduce the risk of injury is known as

    a. Ergonomics

    b. Body mechanics

    c. Balance

    d. Stamina

10. Recumbent position preferred for pregnancy, for some elderly people, in cases of recent surgeries, as

    well as for various other conditions is called

    a. Side-lying position

    b. Accommodating supine

    c. Adaptive prone

    d. Homolateral recumbent

11. Active movements performed by the client while the therapist assists throughout the range of motion

    or stretch are called

    a. Active assisted movements

    b. Active resisted movements

    c. Passive movements

    d. Active movements

    12. The repetition or regularity of massage movements is a definition of a. Rhythm

    b. Speed

    c. Pressure

    d. Depth

    13. What is an assessment done through touching with purpose and intent? a. Crepitus

    b. Validation

    c. Manipulate

    d. Palpation

14. Information learned from the client or the client’s family and friends that includes most written

    information obtained on the intake form and information gathered during conversation is called

    a. Subjective

    b. Propaganda

    c. Objective

    d. Peer review

15. Which of the following statements is true regarding precautions when massaging a pregnant client?

    a. Avoid pétrissage on her right calf.

    b. Apply only hacking tapotement on her abdomen in the second trimester.

    c. Tilt her body to the left by placing a pillow or cushion under her right flank when

    supine.

    d. Place a cushion under her abdomen while she is prone.

    16. What position should be avoided or limited during pregnancy massage? a. Side-lying

    b. Supine with left tilted hip

    c. Prone

    d. Semireclining

17. What should an infant massage instructor use to demonstrate positioning, massage strokes, and

    interpersonal dynamics such as talking?

    a. The caregiver’s baby

    b. A doll

    c. His or her own baby

    d. A video of a session

    18. Feeling pain and other sensations in all or part of an amputated limb is known as a. Chronic

    b. Amputation sensation

    c. Phantom limb pain

    d. Acute

19. A coping mechanism in which the client “leaves her body” or believes that her own past abuse

    experience has happened to someone else is

    a. State dependent memory

    b. Disassociation

    c. Emotional release

    d. Recidivism

20. What is a relatively stable condition of the body’s internal environment within a very limited range?

    a. Physiology

    b. Anatomy

    c. Homeostasis

    d. Metabolism

    21. Which is lateral to the other, the ilium or the umbilicus?

ANS:

    22. Which is anterior to the other, the heart or the vertebral column?

ANS:

23. If you were to assume the anatomical position, you would do which of the following?

    a. Lie face down with both feet hip distance apart, toes pointing downward.

    b. Lie flat on your back with the palms of your hands flat on the floor and your head

    looking over your right shoulder.

    c. Stand erect and face forward, with your palms facing forward with the thumbs to

    the side, and your feet about hip distance apart with the toes pointing forward.

    d. Stand erect and face forward, with your palms facing each other and feet about hip

    distance apart with the toes pointing to the side.

24. What is a group of similar cells that act together to perform a specific function?

    a. Tissue

    b. Particle

    c. Atom

    d. Molecule

25. Which of the following cells gives color to the skin and serves to decrease the amount of ultraviolet

    light that can penetrate into the deeper layers of the skin? a. Keratinocytes

    b. Mesocytes

    c. Astrocytes

    d. Melanocytes

26. What constitutes about 70% of the dermis; offers supports to the nerves, blood vessels, hair follicles,

    and glands; and is the main component of connective tissue? a. Keratin

    b. Elastin

    c. Adipose

    d. Collagen

    27. Which skin glands secrete sweat, or perspiration? a. Sebaceous glands

    b. Pilo glands

    c. Sudoriferous glands

    d. Endocrine glands

28. Which skin region is relatively avascular?

    a. Epidermis

    b. Dermis

    c. Hypodermis

    d. Endodermis

29. Which of the following is a genetic condition in which the individual cannot produce melanin?

    a. Hemophilia

    b. Vitiligo

    c. Albinism

    d. Scleroderma

30. Cells that break down bone tissue to maintain homeostasis of calcium and phosphates and to repair

    bone are called

    a. Osteoclasts

    b. Osteoblasts

    c. Osteocytes

    d. Hemocytes

31. What is the viscous fluid found in synovial joints, sheaths, and bursae?

    a. Synoplasm

    b. Cytoplasm

    c. Articulatory fluid

    d. Synovial fluid

32. Minute vascular canals running longitudinally down the bone are the

    a. Volkman’s canals

    b. Periosteal cavities

    c. Medullary cavities

    d. Haversian canals

    33. Lateral or outward rotation of the forearm is called a. Supination

    b. Protraction

    c. Pronation

    d. Retraction

34. Synovial joints in which movements are limited to flexion and extension (examples are the elbow and

    interphalangeal joints) are called

    a. Pivot joints

    b. Hinge joints

    c. Saddle joints

    d. Ellipsoidal joints

35. Which classification of bones possesses a broad flat surface for muscle attachment or protection of

    underlying organs?

    a. Broad

    b. Sesamoid

    c. Flat

    d. Irregular

36. Lesson One: On which of the following are the greater and lesser tubercles located?

    a. Scapula

    b. Ulna

    c. Humerus

    d. Radius

    37. Lesson Four: Which vertebra contains the odontoid process? a. C1

    b. C2

    c. C6

    d. C7

38. What phrase is used to describe an individual muscle fiber that, sufficiently stimulated, will contract

    to its fullest extent or not at all?

    a. All or none response

    b. Motor unit activation

    c. Recruitment

    d. Troponin/tropomyosin response

39. Which term is used to describe an isotonic contraction that results in lengthening of the muscle?

    a. Stretch contraction

    b. Eccentric contraction

    c. Concentric contraction

    d. Isometric contraction

    40. Which represents a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers to which it attaches?

    a. Muscle spindles

    b. Motor end plate

    c. Motor unit

    d. Tonus

41. Which of the following are fatigue-resistant muscle fibers referred to as red muscle?

    a. Fast twitch

    b. Intermediate

    c. Moderate twitch

    d. Slow twitch

    42. Which of the following are groups of muscle fibers? a. Myofibril

    b. Myofascial

    c. Fasciculi

    d. Sarcomere

43. What is the principal neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction?

    a. Dopamine

    b. Epinephrine

    c. Acetylcholine

    d. Catecholamines

44. What are muscles called that cross two joints and act on both joints?

    a. Uniarticular

    b. Biarticular

    c. Multiarticular

    d. Twicearticular

45. What are the bandage-like retaining bands of connective tissue found primarily around the elbows,

    knees, ankles, and wrists?

    a. Aponeurosis

    b. Perimysium

    c. Retinacula

    d. Epimysium

46. Which of the following is a division of the autonomic nervous system and is most active under calm

    conditions?

    a. Homeostatic nervous system

    b. Beta nervous system

    c. Parasympathetic nervous system

    d. Sympathetic nervous system

47. What is the term used to describe the inside of the neural membrane bearing a negative charge and

    the outside of the neural membrane bearing a positive charge? a. Polarized

    b. Depolarized

    c. Repolarized

    d. Desensitized

    48. Which is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve? a. Epineurium

    b. Endoneurium

    c. Transneurium

    d. Perineurium

49. Which is the study of the nervous system?

    a. Phrenology

    b. Craniology

    c. Neurology

    d. Psychology

50. What is the name of the clear fluid that circulates around the brain and spinal cord?

    a. Cerebrospinal fluid

    b. Blood-brain fluid

    c. Neurotransmitter fluid

    d. Neurocranial secretions

    51. Which of the following is NOT a structure located in the brainstem? a. Pons

    b. Medulla oblongata

    c. Midbrain

    d. Pineal gland

52. What exits the skull through the foramen magnum and extends to about the L2 region?

    a. Spine

    b. Spinous process

c. Spinal cord

    d. Pons

53. Which of the following is(are) the chemical messenger(s) of the endocrine system?

    a. Capillaries

    b. Sebum

    c. Hormones

    d. Antigens

54. Which of the following mechanisms regulates the amount of hormones secreted by an endocrine

    gland by stimulating the opposite response? a. Positive feedback system

    b. Negative feedback system

    c. Hormonal control system

    d. Neural control system

    55. What is a synonym for the hormone epinephrine? a. Adrenaline

    b. Calcitonin

    c. Vasopressin

    d. Cortisol

56. Which gland(s) secrete(s) the hormones triiodothyronine and thyroxine, or T3 and T4?

    a. Thymus

    b. Testes

    c. Thyroid

    d. Adrenal medulla

    57. Which gland secretes antidiuretic hormone, or ADH? a. Anterior pituitary

    b. Posterior pituitary

    c. Adrenal cortex

    d. Adrenal medulla

    58. Which hormone stimulates osteoblast activity? a. Parathyroid hormone

    b. Thymosin and thymopoietin

    c. Triiodothyronine and thyroxine

    d. Calcitonin

59. What is the straw-colored liquid that helps transport blood cells?

    a. Plasma

    b. Hemosolution

    c. Cardiovascular fluid

    d. Circulatory solvent

60. What are the genetically determined proteins on the surfaces of red blood cells?

    a. Tunicas

    b. Pinocytosis

    c. Antigens

    d. Coagulation

    61. Which of the following are the superior hollow heart chambers? a. Atria

    b. Ventricles

    c. Bladders

    d. Papilla

    62. What is the open space within the blood vessel called? a. Ventricles

    b. Cavity

    c. Lumen

    d. Atria

63. Which is a protective mechanism that stabilizes and prepares damaged tissue for repair, with

    symptoms that include local heat, swelling, redness, pain, and decreased function?

    a. Allergy

    b. Pinocytosis

    c. Immunity

    d. Inflammation

    64. Which of the following is referred to as the guardian of the airways? a. Trachea

    b. Epiglottis

    c. Pharynx

    d. Larynx

    :

    65. What are the two phases of breathing?

    a. Pulmonary and tissue respiration

    b. Diffusion and osmosis

    c. Internal and tissue respiration

    d. Inspiration and expiration

    66. Which of the following is the main muscle of respiration? a. Intercostals

    b. Scalenes

    c. Respiratory diaphragm

    d. Abdominals

67. The four paranasal sinuses are the frontal, sphenoidal, ethmoidal, and what else?

    a. Mandibular

b. Maxillary

    c. Zygomatic

    d. Temporal

68. Which of the following is the process by which products of digestion move into the bloodstream or

    lymph vessels, then into the body’s cells?

    a. Ingestion

    b. Digestion

    c. Absorption

    d. Incorporation

69. Which of the following best describes a muscular ring used to regulate movement of materials from

    one compartment of the gastrointestinal tract to another? a. Orbicularis gius

    b. Sphincter

    c. Rugae

    d. Villi

70. What is the body’s most complex internal organ, carrying out more than 500 functions?

    a. Gallbladder

    b. Pancreas

    c. Spleen

    d. Liver

71. What is the muscular passageway leading from the mouth to the anus?

    a. Peristaltic tube

    b. Alimentary canal

    c. Tube of Oddi

    d. Feeding canal

72. What are the anatomical structures of the urinary system?

    a. Renal cavity, esophagus, large intestine, and small intestine

    b. Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra

    c. Kidney, colon, liver, and spleen

    d. Urinary bladder, esophagus, urethra, and ligaments

    73. What are the filtering units of the kidney? a. Kupper cells

    b. Nephrons

    c. Sinusoids

    d. Juxtaglomerular cells

74. Which of the following leaves the kidney at the renal pelvis and goes to the urinary bladder?

    a. Urethra

    b. Glomeruli

    c. Ureters

    d. Juxtaglomerular apparatus

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